The interval in which the Lagrange's theorem is applicable for the function f(x) = 1/x is
| A. | [-3, 3] |
| B. | [-2, 2] |
| C. | [2, 3] |
| D. | [-1, 1] |
Answer : C Explanation : Since f(x) = (1/x) is not continuous in [- 3, 3] [- 4, 2] or [- 1, 1], The point of discontinuity is '0'. Only in [2, 3] the function is continuous, and differentiable hence mean value theorem is applicable in [2, 3]. |
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Option: A Explanation : Explanation will come here. Explanation will come here. Explanation will come here. Explanation will come here. Explanation will come here. |
