| A. | A tautulogy |
| B. | A contradiction |
| C. | Logically equivalent to p ^ q |
| D. | All of above |
Answer : C Explanation : ajinkya said: (10:03pm on Monday 1st July 2013)
B'coz if u solve that eq. geting ans is same as that of p^q
Amarnath said: (4:10pm on Wednesday 31st July 2013)
---------------------------------| p | q |~p |(~pvq)|p^(~pvq)|p^q|---------------------------------| 0 | 0 | 1 | 1 | 0 | 0 |---------------------------------| 0 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 0 | 0 |---------------------------------| 1 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 | 0 |---------------------------------| 1 | 1 | 0 | 1 | 1 | 1 |---------------------------------So C is the right answer
Akshita gupta said: (12:31am on Saturday 6th May 2017)
Mah answer Contradiction(B) what is right answer B or C
Sagar said: (4:06am on Thursday 15th February 2018)
Ans is Tautologyin boolean algebra equivalent eq: p (p` q)= (p p`) q= 1 q= 1 (tautology).
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Option: A Explanation : Explanation will come here. Explanation will come here. Explanation will come here. Explanation will come here. Explanation will come here. |
